Sunday, April 19, 2009

Jesus is Jehovah in 1 Thessalonians

Jesus is Jehovah in the New Testament: Index

1. INTRODUCTION
This is my "Jesus is Jehovah in 1 Thessalonians," which is the third

[Above: Ruins of Ancient Agora, Thessaloniki, Greece: Photius Coutsoukis. Paul may have preached from this very spot. On Paul's brief stay in Thessalonica in c. AD 50, see Acts 17:1-15 NIV.]

part of my series, "Jesus is Jehovah in the New Testament." As previously explained, unless otherwise indicated, the Bible verse links are to the American Standard Version, since it translated the Hebrew YHWH as "Jehovah." See `tagline' quotes below.

2. JESUS HAS NAMES & TITLES OF JEHOVAH
Son of God. Jesus is "his (God's) Son" (1Th 1:10), i.e. God's one and only Son.

Lord. Jesus is "the/our Lord Jesus Christ" (1Th 1:1,3; 5:9,23,28); "the/our Lord Jesus" (1Th 2:15, 19; 3:11,13; 4:1-2); or simply "the Lord" (1Th 1:6,8; 3:8,12; 4:6,15-17; 5:2,12,27). The words of and about Jesus was "the word of the Lord" (1Th 1:8; 4:15; 2Th 3:1; Lk 22:61; Ac 8:25; 13:49; 15:35; 15:36; 16:32; 19:10; 19:20). This logos tou kuriou is identical to the rendering in the Greek translation of the Old Testament (the Septuagint or LXX) of "the word of Jehovah" found over 230 times in the Hebrew Old Testament.

"[1Th 1:1] ... in God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ .. It is striking (a) that he speaks of the Father and the Lord in one breath (no-one else could be linked with the Father in this way), (b) that he joins the two under one preposition in ... Lord and Christ. Lord was used in LXX as the translation of the divine name and it was commonly used of deity ... From very early times Jesus was seen to have the highest place." (Morris, 1984, "Thessalonians," p.41).

"[1Th 1:8] The Lord's message (RSV 'the word of the Lord') is an expression very common in the prophetic writings of the Old Testament .. It emphasizes the conviction of the early Christians that the message they proclaimed was ... truly of divine origin. " (Morris, 1984, Ibid., p.46).

"[1Th 1:1] "God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. The combination of both terms (a. God the Father, b. the Lord Jesus Christ) after one preposition .. in ... would seem to indicate that the two are entirely co-ordinate, that is, that the reference is to the first and to the second person of the Holy Trinity ... the Lord Jesus Christ. In the LXX the name Lord (kurios) translates Jehovah, the God of Israel ... Now the Jews were strict monotheists. Yet Paul, though himself a Jew, again and again gives to Jesus the title Lord. This shows that, in the thinking of the apostle, Jesus is just as fully divine as is God the Father ..." (Hendriksen, 1972, "1 & 2 Thessalonians," pp.40-41).

3. OLD TESTAMENT PASSAGES ABOUT JEHOVAH ARE APPLIED TO JESUS
Zep 1:14-19 = 1Th 5:2-9 Day of the Lord. The second "coming of the/our Lord" Jesus (1Th 2:19; 3:13; 4:15; 5:23; 2Th 2:1; 2:8; Jas 5:7-8) is called "the day of the Lord [Gk. hemeran kuriou]" (1Th 5:2; 2Th 2:2; Ac 2:20; 2Pet 3:10). Which is "the day of the/our Lord Jesus" (1Cor 5:5; 2Cor 1:14); "the day of Jesus Christ" (1Cor 1:8; Php 1:6); "the day of Christ" (Php 1:10; 2:16). But in the Greek Old Testament (LXX) the same words emera kuriou translate the "day of Jehovah" (Isa 2:12; 13:6,9; Jer 46:10; Eze 13:5; 30:3; Joel 1:15; 2:1,11,31; 3:14; Am 5:18,20; Ob 1:15; Zep 1:7,14; Zec 14:1; Mal 4:5). Therefore Jesus is Jehovah!

"Paul frequently refers to Jesus as `Lord' in 1 Corinthians in such a way as to identify him as, or equate him with, the Lord Jehovah of the Old Testament. ... Paul says that Christians hope to be found `blameless on the day of our Lord Jesus Christ ' (1:8; see also 5:5), whereas the Old Testament spoke of that judgment day as `the day of YHWH ' (e.g., Joel 1:15; 2:1, 11, 31). ... Paul's language clearly refers to Jesus as if he were YHWH" (Bowman & Komoszewski, 2007, "Putting Jesus In His Place," pp.163, 339).

"The Old Testament frequently speaks of the eschatological Day of judgment .. as `the day of the LORD,' that is, the day of YHWH (Isa. 13:6, 9; Ezek. 13:5; 30:3; Joel 1:15; 2:1, 11, 31; 3:14; Amos 5:18, 20; Obad. 15; Zeph. 1:7, 14). .. the apostle Paul frequently referred to the eschatological Day of judgment as the Day of the Lord Jesus Christ (1 Cor. 1:8; 5:5; 2 Cor. 1:14; Phil. 1:6, 10; 2:16; 1 Thess. 5:2; 2 Thess. 2:1-2; 2 Tim. 1:18; cf. 2 Peter 3:8-10,12). ... the Lord Jesus' exercising the same function of judgment strongly identifies the Lord Jesus with the Lord YHWH." (Bowman & Komoszewski, 2007, Ibid., p.230).

4. JESUS HAS ATTRIBUTES OF JEHOVAH
Eternal. Christians shall "ever be with the Lord" (1Th 4:17).

5. JESUS DOES WORKS OF JEHOVAH
Judgment. Jesus will avenge sexual sins (1Th 4:3-6). But "the avenger is the Lord" (Gk. ekdikos kurios) is a quote from Ps 94:1 (LXX) where it is Jehovah who is the Lord who avenges (Gk. ekdikeseon kurios).

6. JESUS RECEIVES HONOR & WORSHIP DUE TO JEHOVAH
Hope. New Testament believers are to "hope in our Lord Jesus Christ" (1Th 1:3). But Old Testament believers were to "hope in Jehovah" (Ps 31:24; 130:7; 131:3).

Prayer. Prayer is directed to "our God and Father himself, and our Lord Jesus" as one (1Th 3:11-13):

"[1Th 3:11] ... Notice that our God and Father is linked in the closest fashion in the address of this prayer with our Lord Jesus ... the verb (kateuthynai) is in the singular. There could scarcely be a more impressive way of indicating the lordship of Christ, and his oneness with the Father (... the singular 'implies that God and Jesus count as one in this connection'). From a very early time ... Christians accepted the deity of our Lord without question. ... Prayer is offered to God alone; only one who was divine could be bracketed in this way with the Father ... By the Lord he almost certainly means Jesus, but ... he is making no great distinction between the Father and the Son. For him both were God and the two were in some sense one." (Morris, 1984, Ibid., pp.76-77).

7. OBJECTIONS TO JESUS BEING JEHOVAH
An indirect objection to Jesus being Jehovah in 1 Thessalonians is the Watchtower's citing of 1Th 4:16:

"For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven, with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first;"

in support of its claim that Jesus is Michael the archangel:

"Is Jesus Christ the same person as Michael the archangel? ... At 1 Thessalonians 4:16 (RS), the command of Jesus Christ for the resurrection to begin is described as `the archangel's call,' and Jude 9 says that the archangel is Michael." (WB&TS, 1989, "Reasoning from the Scriptures," p.218).

"Regarding the resurrected Lord Jesus Christ, l Thessalonians 4:16 states: `The Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel's voice.' Thus the voice of Jesus is described as being that of an archangel. This scripture therefore suggests that Jesus himself is the archangel Michael.." (WB&TS, 2005, "What Does the Bible Really Teach?," pp.218-219).

In the original Greek of 1Th 4:16 there is no definite article "the" before "archangel." So in this verse, ironically, the Watchtower's New World Translation is more accurate than some mainstream Christian versions, by correctly translating "an archangel's voice":

1Th 4:16 NWT "because the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel's voice and with God's trumpet, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first."

That is, the verse does not state which of the seven archangels the Jews believed existed:

"ARCHANGEL ... a hierarchy was conceived, headed by various numbers of archangels ... The seven archangels named by Jewish tradition (Uriel, Raphael, Raguel, Michael, Sariel, Gabriel, and Remiel) may be the angels indicated at Rev. 8:1. " (Myers, 1987, "Eerdmans Bible Dictionary," p.81).

"Jewish tradition has always held that there are seven archangels" (Rhodes, 1993, Ibid., p.182).

is the unnamed "an archangel" that Paul is referring to. And Daniel 10:13 reveals that Michael is only "one of the chief princes", indicating there was more than one angel of his rank:

".. Michael is referred to as `one of the foremost princes.' (Daniel 10:13 NWT) The Bible leaves open the possibility that there are other unnamed archangels besides Michael." (Reed, 1996, "Answering Jehovah's Witnesses," p.158).

"Point the Witness to Daniel 10:13, where Michael is specifically called `one of the chief princes.' [which] ... indicates that he is one among a group of chief princes." (Rhodes, 1993, "Reasoning from the Scriptures with the Jehovah's Witnesses," p.182).

That Michael is the only named archangel in the Bible, does not thereby prove he is the only archangel::

"... it should be noted that the term `archangel' is found only twice in the Bible-at 1 Thessalonians 4:16 and Jude 9-providing insufficient information to say for certain that there are no other archangels besides Michael. " (Reed, 1996, Ibid., pp.157-159).

And that Jesus descends with an archangel's voice does not thereby prove Jesus is an archangel:

"... it is faulty logic to conclude that descending `with an archangel's voice' means that Jesus is an archangel. If descending with an archangel's voice makes Christ an archangel, then descending `with God's trumpet' makes Him God. ." (Reed, 1996, Ibid., pp.157-159).

If Jesus was Michael the archangel, such an important teaching of who Jesus is, would be taught many times by Jesus Himself in the gospels and by the Apostle Paul in his major doctrinal letters. But in fact "Michael the archangel" is not mentioned at all in the gospels, nor in Paul's letters, and the only mention of "Michael the archangel" in the entire Bible is in the comparatively minor letter of Jude (Jude 9). So Jesus is not Michael the archangel, and the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society is a false teacher (2Pet 2:1)! See also my "Is Jesus Christ Michael the archangel?".

8. CONCLUSION
Because in 1 Thessalonians: 1) Jesus is called "Lord" (Gk. kurios) in the same sense that Jehovah was called "Lord" in the Greek translation of the Old Testament (the Septuagint or LXX); 2) the "Day of the Lord Jesus" is the same as the Old Testament "day of Jehovah"; and 3) there are no valid objections to Jesus being Jehovah in 1 Thessalonians (including the Watchtower's claim that Jesus is Michael the archangel); therefore, Jesus is Jehovah in 1 Thessalonians!

PS. The previous (second) post in this series was "Jesus is Jehovah in Galatians" and the next (fourth) post in it is "Jesus is Jehovah in 1 Corinthians."

Stephen E. Jones.
My other blogs: CreationEvolutionDesign & The Shroud of Turin


"Paul frequently refers to Jesus as `Lord' in 1 Corinthians in such a way as to identify him as, or equate him with, the Lord Jehovah of the Old Testament. Three instances appear in the opening ten verses alone. Christians, according to Paul, are `all those who in every place call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ' (1 Cor. 1:2). The Old Testament, of course, taught that one should call on the name of the Lord YHWH (e.g., Joel 2:32, which, as we have seen, Paul also applied to Jesus in Romans 10:13). A few verses later, Paul says that Christians hope to be found `blameless on the day of our Lord Jesus Christ ' (1:8; see also 5:5), whereas the Old Testament spoke of that judgment day as `the day of YHWH ' (e.g., Joel 1:15; 2:1, 11, 31). The allusion to `the day of the Lord' (cf. Joel 2:31) in the same context as `calling on the name of the Lord' (cf. Joel 2:32) makes it all the more likely that Paul's language alludes directly to Joel. He refers to this future day of the Lord Jesus in several other epistles (2 Cor. 1:14; Phil. 1:6, 10; 2:16; 1 Thess. 5:2; 2 Thess. 2:1-2; 2 Tim. 1:18). Paul then exhorts his readers `by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ' (1:10), again placing the focus on the name of the Lord Jesus that Judaism placed on the name of the Lord YHWH ... Paul's language clearly refers to Jesus as if he were YHWH" (Bowman, R.M., Jr. & Komoszewski, J.E., 2007, "Putting Jesus In His Place," Kregel: Grand Rapids MI, pp.163, 339 n.25).

"The Old Testament frequently speaks of the eschatological Day of judgment (as well as certain historical judgments on the nations that were precursors to that day) as `the day of the LORD,' that is, the day of YHWH (Isa. 13:6, 9; Ezek. 13:5; 30:3; Joel 1:15; 2:1, 11, 31; 3:14; Amos 5:18, 20; Obad. 15; Zeph. 1:7, 14). As we pointed out in chapter 13, the apostle Paul frequently referred to the eschatological Day of judgment as the Day of the Lord Jesus Christ (1 Cor. 1:8; 5:5; 2 Cor. 1:14; Phil. 1:6, 10; 2:16; 1 Thess. 5:2; 2 Thess. 2:1-2; 2 Tim. 1:18; cf. 2 Peter 3:8-10,12). The use of such a familiar Old Testament idiom in reference to the Lord Jesus' exercising the same function of judgment strongly identifies the Lord Jesus with the Lord YHWH." (Bowman & Komoszewski, 2007, p.230).

"[1Th 1:1] "God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. The combination of both terms (a. God the Father, b. the Lord Jesus Christ) after one preposition (in; that is grounded in) would seem to indicate that the two are entirely co-ordinate, that is, that the reference is to the first and to the second person of the Holy Trinity. Note also the trinitarian character of verses 3-5. Hence, the third person (Holy Spirit), mentioned in verse 5, is implied already in verse 1. Paul often mentions the three together in series of closely connected passages (II Thess. 2:13, 14; I Cor. 12:4-6; II Cor. 13:14; Eph. 2:18; 3:2-5; 3:14-17; 4:4-6; 5:18-20). In referring to the second person the full name is used here: the Lord Jesus Christ. In the LXX the name Lord (kurios) translates Jehovah, the God of Israel. It is more often the rendering of Jehovah than of anything else. (At times it is the equivalent of Adon, Adonai, Baal, etc.) Now the Jews were strict monotheists. Yet Paul, though himself a Jew, again and again gives to Jesus the title Lord. This shows that, in the thinking of the apostle, Jesus is just as fully divine as is God the Father: one and the same essence is possessed by the Father and by the Son (also by the Spirit, II Cor. 13:14)." (Hendriksen, W., 1972, "1 & 2 Thessalonians," New Testament Commentary, [1955], Banner of Truth: Edinburgh UK, British edition, pp.40-41).

"[1Th 1:1] Also peculiar to these Epistles is the phrase in God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ (Paul usually says 'in Christ'). It is striking (a) that he speaks of the Father and the Lord in one breath (no-one else could be linked with the Father in this way), (b) that he joins the two under one preposition in, and (c) that he expresses the closeness of the tie linking the Thessalonians with their God in terms of Christ as well as the Father. 'The association could hardly be closer' (Ward). This high view of Jesus is continued with the use of Lord and Christ. Lord was used in LXX as the translation of the divine name and it was commonly used of deity in other religions (as well as having less significant uses). It points to a very high place. Christ means 'anointed' and is equivalent to 'Messiah'. And all this in a letter written only about twenty years after the crucifixion. From very early times Jesus was seen to have the highest place." (Morris, L.L., 1984, "The Epistles of Paul to the Thessalonians: An Introduction and Commentary," Tyndale New Testament Commentaries, [1956], Inter-Varsity Press: Leicester UK, Second Edition, p.41).

"[1Th 1:8] The Lord's message (RSV 'the word of the Lord') is an expression very common in the prophetic writings of the Old Testament and found often in Acts [Ac 8:25; 13:44,48-49; 15:35-36; 16:32; 19:10,20], but twice only (here and 2 Thes. 3:1) in Paul (though it is not very different from expressions such as 'the word', 'the word of God', 'the gospel of God' and the like, which are frequent in Paul). It emphasizes the conviction of the early Christians that the message they proclaimed was not the product of human wisdom, but truly of divine origin." (Morris, 1984, p.46).

""[1Th 3:11] From a rhetorical question Paul now turns to an actual prayer ... Notice that our God and Father is linked in the closest fashion in the address of this prayer with our Lord Jesus (again in 2 Thes. 2:16, in the reverse order), and that the verb (kateuthynai) is in the singular. There could scarcely be a more impressive way of indicating the lordship of Christ, and his oneness with the Father (... the singular 'implies that God and Jesus count as one in this connection'). From a very early time (this letter is dated about an 50) Christians accepted the deity of our Lord without question. (Prayer is not the place for the introduction of argument.) Prayer is offered to God alone; only one who was divine could be bracketed in this way with the Father. The prayer is that God and Christ may clear the way, i.e. remove the obstacles that Satan has put in the path. ... By the Lord he almost certainly means Jesus, but as we see from the preceding petition he is making no great distinction between the Father and the Son. For him both were God and the two were in some sense one." (Morris, 1984, pp.76-77).

"ARCHANGEL .. (Gk. archangelos). Chief of the angels (1 Thess. 4:16) and an epithet of Michael (Jude 9). With the heightened interest in angelology during the Persian and Hellenistic periods, a hierarchy was conceived, headed by various numbers of archangels (e.g., Tob. 12:15; I Enoch 87:2-3; 90:31). The seven archangels named by Jewish tradition (Uriel, Raphael, Raguel, Michael, Sariel, Gabriel, and Remiel) may be the angels indicated at Rev. 8:1. " (Myers, A.C., ed., 1987, "Archangel," in "The Eerdmans Bible Dictionary," Eerdmans: Grand Rapids MI, Reprinted, 2000, p.81).

"Michael the Archangel ... God's inspired Word mentions Michael five times: as `one of the foremost princes' (Daniel 10:13 NWT), as `the prince of [Daniel's] people' (Daniel 10:21 NWT), as `the great prince who is standing in behalf of the sons of [Daniel's] people' (Daniel 12:1 NWT), as `the archangel' who `had a difference with the devil and was disputing about Moses' body' but `did not dare to bring a judgment against him in abusive terms' (Jude 9 NWT), and as a participant in heavenly conflict when `Michael and his angels battled with the dragon' (Revelation 12:7 NWT). Does one of these verses say that Michael the archangel is Jesus Christ? No. It is necessary to read Scripture plus a Watchtower argument to reach that conclusion. That argument is presented this way in the April 15, 1991, Watchtower magazine, on page 28:

Why do we conclude that Jesus is the archangel Michael? God's Word mentions only one archangel, and it speaks of that angel in reference to the resurrected Lord Jesus: `The Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel's voice and with God's trumpet.' (1 Thessalonians 4:16) At Jude 9 we find that this archangel's name is Michael.

The argument consists of three parts that can be analyzed separately: (1) `God's Word mentions only one archangel,' (2) `it speaks of that angel in reference to the resurrected Lord Jesus,' and (3) `this archangel's name is Michael.'" In answer to (1) and (3) it should be noted that the term `archangel' is found only twice in the Bible-at 1 Thessalonians 4:16 and Jude 9-providing insufficient information to say for certain that there are no other archangels besides Michael. Although he is the only archangel named in Scripture, Michael is referred to as `"one of the foremost princes.' (Daniel 10:13 NWT) The Bible leaves open the possibility that there are other unnamed archangels besides Michael. As for part (2) of the Watchtower argument, it is faulty logic to conclude that descending `with an archangel's voice' means that Jesus is an archangel. If descending with an archangel's voice makes Christ an archangel, then descending `with God's trumpet' makes Him God. The same logic must be applied to the entire verse, not just part of it." (Reed, D.A., 1996, "Answering Jehovah's Witnesses: Subject by Subject," Baker: Grand Rapids MI, Second printing, 1998, pp.157-159).

"1 Thessalonians 4:16-The Voice of an Archangel ... The New World Translation renders 1 Thessalonians 4:16, `The Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel's voice and with God's trumpet, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first.' The Watchtower Society argues that the Lord Himself issues forth a commanding call with the voice of the archangel, thereby proving that He is the archangel Michael. In support of this interpretation, Aid to Bible Understanding comments, `Michael is the only one said to be the `archangel,' meaning `chief angel' or `principal angel.' The term occurs in the Bible only in the singular. This seems to imply that there is but one whom God has designated chief or head of the angelic host. At 1 Thessalonians 4:16 the voice of the resurrected Lord Jesus Christ is described as being that of an archangel, suggesting that he is, in fact, himself the archangel.' [WTB&TS, 1971,"Aid to Bible Understanding," p.1152] ... In your answer to the Jehovah's Witness begin by addressing the claim that because `archangel' occurs in the singular, this must mean that `there is but one whom God has designated chief or head of the angelic host.' Point the Witness to Daniel 10:13, where Michael is specifically called `one of the chief princes.' The fact that Michael is `one of' the chief princes indicates that he is one among a group of chief princes. How large that group is, we are not told. But the fact that Michael is one among equals proves that he is not totally unique. ... Jewish tradition has always held that there are seven archangels. [Bromiley, G.W., ed., 1986, "International Standard Bible Encyclopedia," Vol. 3, Eerdmans: Grand Rapids MI, p.347]" (Rhodes, R., 1993, "Reasoning from the Scriptures with the Jehovah's Witnesses," Harvest House: Eugene OR, Reprinted, 2006, pp.181-182).

"Is Jesus Christ the same person as Michael the archangel? The name of this Michael appears only five times in the Bible. The glorious spirit person who bears the name is referred to as `one of the chief princes,' `the great prince who has charge of your [Daniel's] people,' and as `the archangel.' (Dan. 10:13; 12:1; Jude 9, RS) Michael means `Who Is Like God?' The name evidently designates Michael as the one who takes the lead in upholding Jehovah's sovereignty and destroying God's enemies. At 1 Thessalonians 4:16 (RS), the command of Jesus Christ for the resurrection to begin is described as `the archangel's call,' and Jude 9 says that the archangel is Michael. Would it be appropriate to liken Jesus' commanding call to that of someone lesser in authority? Reasonably, then, the archangel Michael is Jesus Christ. (Interestingly, the expression `archangel' is never found in the plural in the Scriptures, thus implying that there is only one.) Revelation 12:7-12 says that Michael and his angels would war against Satan and hurl him and his wicked angels out of heaven in connection with the conferring of kingly authority on Christ. Jesus is later depicted as leading the armies of heaven in war against the nations of the world. (Rev. 19:11-16) Is it not reasonable that Jesus would also be the one to take action against the one he described as `ruler of this world,' Satan the Devil? (John 12:31) Daniel 12:1 (RS) associates the `standing up of Michael' to act with authority with `a time of trouble, such as never has been since there was a nation till that time.' That would certainly fit the experience of the nations when Christ as heavenly executioner takes action against them. So the evidence indicates that the Son of God was known as Michael before he came to earth and is known also by that name since his return to heaven where he resides as the glorified spirit Son of God." (WB&TS, 1989, "Reasoning from the Scriptures," [1985], Watchtower Bible & Tract Society of New York: Brooklyn NY, Second edition, p.218).

"Archangel. God's Word refers to Michael `the archangel.' (Jude 9) This term means `chief angel.' Notice that Michael is called the archangel. This suggests that there is only one such angel. In fact, the term `archangel' occurs in the Bible only in the singular, never in the plural. Moreover, Jesus is linked with the office of archangel. Regarding the resurrected Lord Jesus Christ, l Thessalonians 4:16 states: `The Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel's voice.' Thus the voice of Jesus is described as being that of an archangel. This scripture therefore suggests that Jesus himself is the archangel Michael. Army Leader. The Bible states that `Michael and his angels battled with the dragon ... and its angels.' (Revelation 12:7) Thus, Michael is the Leader of an army of faithful angels. Revelation also describes Jesus as the Leader of an army of faithful angels. (Revelation 19:14-16) And the apostle Paul specifically mentions `the Lord Jesus' and `his powerful angels.' (2 Thessalonians 1:7; Matthew 16:27; 24:31; 1 Peter 3: 22) So the Bible speaks of both Michael and `his angels' and Jesus and `his angels.' (Matthew 13:41) Since God's Word nowhere indicates that there are two armies of faithful angels in heaven-one headed by Michael and one headed by Jesus-it is logical to conclude that Michael is none other than Jesus Christ in his heavenly role." (WB&TS, 2005, "What Does the Bible Really Teach?," Watchtower Bible & Tract Society of New York: Brooklyn NY, pp.218-219).

4 comments:

Anonymous said...

Having just stumbled across this blog I may be asking something Mr Jones has covered before but I'll ask anyway.

I'm not being sarcastic in asking: Do you consider yourself to be the answer to Jesus' question found at Matthew 24:45-47?

I ask because it is this "faithful and discreet slave" who dispenses spiritual food according to Jesus. It appears that you are playing this role and I can't help but wonder about your authority to make the interpretations you've made.

I can understand why you would want to tell people "your proof" that Jesus is Jehovah. The clergy of Christendom certainly have not been able to scripturally, nor logically, explain the their teaching of the trinity. Maybe you too were not satisfied with their shallow explanations of John 1:1. Am I warm?

In addition to sharing your understanding of Mt 24:45-47, maybe you would also be kind enough to share how your opinion fits with whom it was that Jesus prayed to if he is Jehovah?

Also, who resurrected Jesus from the dead if he is also the Creator of life, Jehovah?

Whom did Jesus present the value of his sacrifice to when he appeared before the throne of God upon his ascension back to heaven if he is Jehovah?

Please don't tell me you believe what the Mormons believe, that "Heavenly Father" is the Creator, thus allowing Jehovah and Jesus being the same person?

Stephen E. Jones said...

Anonymous

>Having just stumbled across this blog I may be asking something Mr Jones has covered before but I'll ask anyway.

Thanks for your comment.

>I'm not being sarcastic in asking: Do you consider yourself to be the answer to Jesus' question found at Matthew 24:45-47?

No.

>I ask because it is this "faithful and discreet slave" who dispenses spiritual food according to Jesus. It appears that you are playing this role and I can't help but wonder about your authority to make the interpretations you've made.

See above.

>I can understand why you would want to tell people "your proof" that Jesus is Jehovah. The clergy of Christendom certainly have not been able to scripturally, nor logically, explain the their teaching of the trinity. Maybe you too were not satisfied with their shallow explanations of John 1:1. Am I warm?

No, you are not warm. All leading Greek scholars and all leading translations, render Jn 1:1 "... and the Word was God" (or its equivalent). Even the Watchtower's own Kingdom Interlinear Translation, renders the original Greek of Jn 1:1, "... and god was the Word," i.e. the pre-Incarnate Jesus was God by nature, not "a god" as the unqualified NWT translation committee mistranslated it.

As for why I tell people that Jesus is Jehovah, the answer is simple: The Bible teaches it in hundreds of verses, i.e. that Yahweh of the Old Testament is Jesus of the New Testament.

Indeed if the Watchtower Society was consistent in its replacing Gk. kurios with "Jehovah," in the NWT, especially when it was a quote from the Old Testament with YHWH in it, then Php 2:11 NWT, which is based on Isa 45:23 and which does contain YHWH, would read:

"... and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Jehovah ..."!

Indeed, the NWT translates kurios in Rom 14:11 as "Jehovah":

"for it is written: “‘As I live,’ says Jehovah, ‘to me every knee will bend down, and every tongue will make open acknowledgment to God.’”

when it also is a quote of Isa 45:23. Which just shows how dishonest the NWT translators were!

>In addition to sharing your understanding of Mt 24:45-47, maybe you would also be kind enough to share how your opinion fits with whom it was that Jesus prayed to if he is Jehovah?

Jesus, Jehovah the Son, was praying to Jehovah the Father. Read my "Jesus is Jehovah in the New Testament: Index":

"That the Lord Jesus Christ is revealed in the New Testament as being Jehovah (Heb. Yahweh) of the Old Testament, does not preclude the other two Persons of the Holy Trinity (Mt 28:19; 2Cor 13:14; 1Pet 1:2): the Father (Dt 32:6; Isa 63:16; 64:8; Mal 1:6) and the Holy Spirit (Isa 61:1; Lk 4:18; 2Cor 3:17), also being revealed in the New Testament as Jehovah, the one self-existent Triune God."

>Also, who resurrected Jesus from the dead if he is also the Creator of life, Jehovah?

The Bible reveals that all three Persons of the Trinity cooperated in raising Jesus from the dead:

1. The Father raised Jesus from the dead (we all agree on that at least!) Gal 1:1). "Jesus Christ and God the Father, who raised him from the dead";

2. The Son (Jesus) raised Himself from the dead: Jn 2:19-21. "Jesus answered them, `Destroy this temple, and I WILL RAISE IT AGAIN in three days." The Jews replied, `It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and you are going to raise it in three days?' But the temple he had spoken of was HIS BODY" (my emphasis).

3. The Holy Spirit raised Jesus from the dead: 1Pet 3:18 "For Christ died for sins once for all, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but MADE ALIVE BY THE SPIRIT" (my emphasis).

Note that Jn 2:19-21, refutes two Watchtower doctrines:

1) that Jesus passed into non-existence when He died, because it is the same Jesus before death who says He will raise up His same body after death; and

2) that Jesus was not God but just an angel, because only one who is God could raise Himself up from the dead.

>Whom did Jesus present the value of his sacrifice to when he appeared before the throne of God upon his ascension back to heaven if he is Jehovah?

Same answer as on who Jesus was praying to.

>Please don't tell me you believe what the Mormons believe, that "Heavenly Father" is the Creator, thus allowing Jehovah and Jesus being the same person?

No I won't tell you that.

Stephen E. Jones

Unknown said...

Daniel 10:13 it is contended that rather than "one of the chief princes" is should be read "the one chief prince". Look into that

Stephen E. Jones said...

Unknown

>Daniel 10:13 it is contended that rather than "one of the chief princes" is should be read "the one chief prince". Look into that

My Hebrew Interlinear Bible has in Daniel 10:13b:

"But lo, Michael, ONE of the rulers first, came to help me ..." (my emphasis).

Stephen E. Jones